a 37 year old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.

2. In the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client, which goal is the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client is to establish trust. Trust is fundamental in building a therapeutic relationship, which is essential for effective care. Without trust, the client may not engage in therapy or interventions. Once trust is established, the nurse can then assess the client's feelings of self-worth, sense of identity, and ability to socialize. While these other goals are important in the overall care of the client, establishing trust forms the foundation for further progress in the therapeutic relationship and treatment.

3. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.

4. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

5. After a client has a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes that both she and her partner are visibly upset and crying. Which statement would be a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A therapeutic response in this situation is to offer support and empathy. Saying, 'I'll be here if you want to talk' gives the client and her partner the opportunity to express their emotions and seek comfort. It acknowledges their distress and assures them of the nurse's availability. Choice B, advising to relax to speed up the healing process, dismisses their current emotions and may hinder open communication. Choice C, suggesting getting pregnant again soon, minimizes their grief over the loss and may not be what the couple needs to hear at that moment. Choice D, stating it's best that the miscarriage happened early, is insensitive as it invalidates the couple's feelings of loss and grief. Grieving is a natural process, and the timing of the loss does not diminish its significance.

Similar Questions

Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
What behavior is expected of members of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)?
A client who has been told she needs a hysterectomy for cervical cancer reports being upset about being unable to have a third child. Which action would the nurse take?
What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?

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