a 37 year old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagi

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?

A. 'There are so many children up for adoption, looking for a mother.'
B. 'This must feel so difficult for you. Children are really important to you?'
C. This must feel so difficult for you. Although Children should not be important to you.'
D. Believe me when I tell you that kids are so difficult to raise"?you're better off without them.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.

2. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?

A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

3. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the nurse to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?

A. Determine how well the client can change the dressing.
B. Ask the client to demonstrate the procedure.
C. Seek a family member's opinion on the client's dressing change ability.
D. Observe the client change the dressing unassisted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best method for the nurse to evaluate the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home is by observing the client change the dressing unassisted. Direct observation allows the nurse to assess if the client has mastered the skill and provides an opportunity to confirm the proficiency. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same level of assessment as direct observation. Option A incorrectly focuses on the client's feelings rather than their actual performance ability. Option B, asking the client to demonstrate the procedure, may not accurately reflect their practical skills. Option C, seeking a family member's opinion, introduces potential bias and may not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability to perform the dressing change independently.

4. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

A. Bulimia
B. Anorexia
C. Orthorexia
D. Binge eating disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

5. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

A. Schizophrenia
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Delusional disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.