to reduce the risk of venous thrombosis the nurse should instruct the client in measures that promote venous return such as dorsiflexion and plantar
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet

1. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.

2. A client is being assessed by a nurse for increased anxiety, restlessness, and insomnia. Which of the following interventions is the first priority for the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first priority when dealing with a client experiencing potential mental health issues is to ensure their safety. Taking the client to a private room helps to reduce external stimuli and staying with them ensures constant monitoring and support. This intervention can prevent any escalation of anxiety or restlessness and promote a sense of security for the client. Engaging in a conversation about improving rest and sleep is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Administering medications should only be done after the client's safety is assured. Reviewing the client's medical history, while important, is not the immediate priority when the client is exhibiting acute symptoms of anxiety and restlessness.

3. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

4. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

5. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.

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