NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?
- A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
- B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
- C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
- D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.
2. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
4. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
- A. Fixed delusion
- B. Magical thinking
- C. Pathological regression
- D. Command hallucination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
5. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
- A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
- B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
- C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
- D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
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