NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.
2. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
3. The nurse notes bruises on the pregnant client's face and abdomen. There are no bruises on her legs and arms. Further assessment is required to confirm which condition?
- A. Domestic abuse
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Domestic abuse is a serious concern during pregnancy as it can escalate, and the bruises on the face and abdomen may indicate physical violence towards the pregnant woman. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like an enlarged uterus for gestational age, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, not bruises. Excessive exercise typically leads to cardiovascular or pulmonary issues, not bruising. Thrombocytopenic purpura and other bleeding disorders usually present with bruises and petechiae on various body surfaces, not just limited to the face and abdomen.
4. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the healthcare provider as soon as possible?
- A. Daily black, sticky stool
- B. Daily dark brown stool
- C. Firm brown stool every other day
- D. Soft light brown stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Daily black, sticky stool.' Black sticky stool (melena) is indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious condition that requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Options B and D, 'Daily dark brown stool' and 'Soft light brown stool twice a day,' respectively, represent variations of normal stool characteristics and do not raise immediate concerns about the client's health. Option C, 'Firm brown stool every other day,' suggests constipation, which is of lesser concern and can be managed with interventions.
5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access