Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
• B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
• C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
• D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

2. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?

• A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
• B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
• C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
• D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.

3. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Are you concerned about the potential pain from surgery?
• B. Have you had negative experiences with previous surgeries?
• C. Surgery is the recommended treatment for stage I lung cancer.
• D. Tell me about your understanding of the different available treatments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.

4. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?

• A. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. A client with unstable angina
• C. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs
• D. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.

5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

• A. Dry dressing
• B. Transparent dressing
• C. Composite dressing
• D. Wet to dry dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

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