Nursing Elites

1. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.

2. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.

3. The nurse evaluates the client's progress and determines that one of the nursing diagnoses on the client's care plan has been resolved. How should the nurse document this so that it is best communicated to the healthcare team?

• A. Use Liquid PaperTM to 'white out' the resolved diagnosis on the care plan
• B. Recopy the care plan without the resolved diagnosis
• C. Write a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved
• D. Draw a single line through the diagnosis on the care plan and write the nurse's initials and date

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To discontinue a diagnosis once it has been resolved, cross it off with a single line or highlight it, then write initials and date. Some agency forms may require the nurse to put date and initials in a 'Date Resolved' column. Using Liquid PaperTM is not a legal way to amend client records as it can obscure the original documentation. Recopying the care plan without the resolved diagnosis can lead to confusion and inaccuracies in the client's record. Writing a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved is important but should not be the sole method used to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis. Drawing a single line through the resolved diagnosis on the care plan and documenting the nurse's initials and date is the most effective way to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis to the healthcare team.

4. During her shift at the hospital, a nurse receives a stern reprimand from a physician over something over which she had no control. The nurse does not respond. When she returns home that evening, she sees her children's toys all over the floor, gets mad, and begins to yell at them. Which form of defense mechanism is this nurse using?

• A. Symbolization
• B. Suppression
• C. Displacement
• D. Projection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Displacement is the process of redirecting feelings or impulses from one person to another. In this scenario, the nurse chose not to respond to the physician, but instead displaced her negative emotions onto her children, who are less threatening and more vulnerable. This defense mechanism allowed her to express her anger in a safer outlet. Symbolization involves representing unconscious feelings or impulses through symbols, not redirecting them. Suppression is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness, not displacing them onto others. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or emotions to someone else, which is not evident in this case.

5. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

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