Nursing Elites

1. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.

2. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

• A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
• B. Depression with melancholic features
• C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
• D. Bipolar depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

3. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.

4. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

• A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
• B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
• C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
• D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

5. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?

• A. Galactorrhea
• B. Gynecomastia
• C. Amenorrhea
• D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.

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