Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the neutral subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?

• A. Electron
• B. Proton
• C. Neutron
• D. Positron

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Neutron. Neutrons are subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom that have no charge. They have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (amu). The number of neutrons in an atom's nucleus contributes to the mass number of the atom, which is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. Choice A, Electron, is incorrect as electrons are negatively charged particles found outside the nucleus. Choice B, Proton, is incorrect as protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus. Choice D, Positron, is incorrect as positrons are positively charged antiparticles of electrons and are not typically found in the nucleus of an atom.

2. Which cells myelinate neurons in the CNS?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Astrocytes
• C. Microglia
• D. Oligodendrocytes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Oligodendrocytes. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). Schwann cells, found in the peripheral nervous system, are responsible for myelinating neurons there. Astrocytes support and maintain the neuronal environment, while microglia function as immune cells in the CNS, participating in immune responses and cellular debris clearance. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect for myelination of CNS neurons.

3. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

• A. Ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo.
• B. Ensure that the subjects do not know whether they are given the drug or the placebo, but the investigators are aware of who has received the medication.
• C. Ensure that the investigators do not know whether they are administering the drug or the placebo, but the subjects do know which they are receiving.
• D. Ensure that both the investigators and the subjects have full knowledge of which subjects are getting the drug and which are getting a placebo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

4. Which process involves the body's natural defense against inhaled dust and allergens?

• A. Cellular respiration
• B. Gas exchange
• C. Ciliary action
• D. Bronchoconstriction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ciliary action refers to the process where tiny hair-like structures called cilia in the respiratory tract help to sweep away inhaled dust and allergens, preventing them from entering deeper into the lungs. This is a crucial part of the body's natural defense mechanism against respiratory irritants. Cellular respiration (A) is the process where cells use oxygen to produce energy, not a defense mechanism against inhaled particles. Gas exchange (B) involves the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, not specifically targeting inhaled dust and allergens. Bronchoconstriction (D) is the narrowing of the airways in response to irritants or allergens, which can lead to breathing difficulties, but it is not the primary defense mechanism against these particles.

5. Which hormone, produced by the thyroid gland, plays a key role in regulating calcium levels in the blood by promoting calcium release from bones and increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys?

• A. Calcitonin
• B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcitonin, produced by the thyroid gland, is responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood. It works by decreasing blood calcium levels through two main mechanisms: promoting calcium uptake by bones and decreasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys. Parathyroid hormone (PTH), on the other hand, increases blood calcium levels by promoting calcium release from bones and increasing calcium absorption in the intestines. Thyroxine, another thyroid hormone, primarily regulates metabolism and has no direct influence on calcium levels. Insulin, produced by the pancreas, is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and is not related to calcium homeostasis.

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